This question makes me wonder how large the burden on state finances was to fund such pensions. Presumably in 1791 it would not have been that large. By 1814 it must have been significant. How was this funded? Did the state default or devalue the pensions? Were they fixed or indexed in some manner? How did the First Restauration handle this account (I suspect not well). What happened in the Second Restauration?

It is a never ending problem. We are faced with similar issues today. The US GI Bill can't be cheap to operate. Roman politics were driven by several ongoing themes, one of which was the financial burden of ex-soldiers.

I've never really thought about the issue in this period and would be interested in any insights.

I have seen the costs exposed in British Parliamentary papers. I figure the French must have at least had decent accounting, even if payment was less than perfect. What about other states? Did discharged Russians see any sort of pension?

David