Yes, indeed some military law. But the question for which I an seeking an aswer is to what extent did these laws have even a vague resemblance to the "enlightened" doctrines for the treatment of civilians as envisaged y Vattel and Martens ?

You have shown some degree of relationship in the case of the British.
Now, how about the others ???

The answer gets at the question of whether we have
(i) a rather barbarous age with Britain as an example of a more modern ethic, or
(ii) a barbaric Napoléonic French régime, worthy of condemnation then and now.

Recall that this whole topic was cast under the shadow of French "atrocity" and "democide" and "war crimes". But if ALL the other nations (saving perhaps Britain and America) played by the same rulebook as the French, then why in the world signal them out for special condemnation ?

Just to bother Kevin ?