... I don't know much about Spain, but the general trend of the allegations is much the same as against the Church in England before the Reformation and in France before the Revolution, and doubtless there is a basis of truth in them.

That what you have said is not the whole truth can be demonstrated by the number of people of all classes, in all these cases, who continued to support the Church even when the 'thought control' and sanctions, the gallows and the guillotine, turned the other way.

... The Church in England provided many services to the poor which were not always immediately replaced by the State. I see no reason to suppose that the Church in Spain did any less.

True, I did not provide citations for my allegations; I feel like a modern prosecutor of terrorists -- you want evidence, what a novel touch? I did not intend to say that was all there was to it.

My allegations also follow the general line taken by Martin Luther. However, Spain did have its differences from those other places. I'm not clear how continued support of a theological doctrine equates with support of support of the corrupt practices of a particular set of priests.

Without evidence, you are ready to interpolate the ratio of self-enrichment to service for the poor by the church in Spain in 1800 from that ratio in England in 1500. Maybe that works, but I doubt it.